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Facebook Why does God seemingly allow polygamy in the Old Testament?-Charles Dyer



  • 2012-03-22T22:23:41

I don't think while we are here on earth we will totally understand the wisdom and ways of our Lord Jesus Christ.We are sinners saved by grace and I believe it is more important to focus on the wonderful gift of salvation that his death and resurrection has gained for us instead of focus on things we might never understand.Also, reading and claiming all the wonderful promises that are available to us in his written word the Holy Bible.Gods ways are not our ways and I am humbly thankful for the wonderful gift of his shed blood on the cross has obtained for me, my name written in the Book of Life.

  • 2012-03-21T19:11:33

by the way you have no clue I have read a wonderful retired Moody Prof. that has nothing to loose and he wrote a book about marry and divorce and in there he talk about the morality of polygany and you can read it for free on Bible. org his name is William Luck.

  • 2012-03-20T04:26:28

Sometimes God leaves the human societies to deteriorate and take their natural courses fully before He reforms them with His truth or destroy them by either natural disasters or wars, while saving the victims from some utmost misery that comes from the natural barbarism. God's Word and His standard never changes; we humans corrupt all systems such as marriage and labor order. All we have is just some time duration to watch ourselves, repent, reform and come back to God. Existence of polygamy and slavery are against His design for humanity but reveal or signify our very human nature. The spiritual battles for Chritians are personal as well as collective and social.

  • 2012-01-17T07:50:03

#2 - Today's Westerners have no idea how hellish it is to be married to a mean man and just live with him alone where divorce is not possible especially in a childless state! Absence of God's severe punishment on polygamy was rather a compassion on women just for a time until mankind was brought into the new dispensation of grace by Jesus, because humans are indeed evil. The Hebrews/Israelits have known God's standard all along, though. For example, Samson's father and John the Baptist's father and many other men kept God's will and design of monogamy. Slavery, the same reason. In most ancient societies, without being under someone's umbrella, starvation or death was inevitable for orphans, incapable people, foreigners, and prisoners. It's far better to be slaves and live, rather than facing starvation. Slavery still continues today as the employer-employee relationship which will never disappear as long as a human society requires order of any kind and some humans function as the society's brain.

  • 2012-01-17T07:17:37

#1 - Polygamy has been a common practice among mankind, especially for rich or mighty men, until Christian missionaries came and made fuss about it. True, all men and women are equal under God, and a man must love one woman for lifetime. God's Word is right. So we pagans were educated and made civil by Christian missionaries for the first time. I think polygamy in a way reduced some women's misery when a society has the following features: 1)starvation is common due to drought 2)heavily depends on constant warfare for survival 3) is man-dominated since man is physically superior 4) deems securing off-springs by male-child is the utmost importance{lineage through a son after the father} 5)divorce is literally impossible since it means the wife's immediate destruction from the lack of means of survival. We mankind have been always fighting for mere survival for the longest time everywhere. Let's not forget that.

  • 2012-01-17T07:10:18

Please read my 2 comments above regarding slavery and polygamy. Non-believers especially young ones in the West have huge ignorance on human nature, history and human societies. Incests and homosexuality have been always forbidden by God. Brother-sister marriage was inevitable only for Adam and Eve's direct first set of children and it disappeared as practice eventually.

  • 2012-01-09T20:22:02

This is a difficult question. It ranks right up there with such questions as, Why does God permit divorce? Why does God permit crime in general? Why does God permit quarreling among Christian denominations? In my opinion, as far as my human mind can ascertain, Mr. Dyer was correct in citing Jesus' answer to the Pharisees concerning divorce, as recorded by Matthew: because of men's willfulness, they took on more than one wife, going against God's Will; but God was merciful and did not punish them. This shows God's Love for people, working through and in spite of our disobedience to to bring good out of our less than perfect lives as His people down through history. I have no comment about Mr.Dyer's comments about God using polygamy as a means for the increase of the human race; I am not wise enough to render an opinion there, though I did have to scratch my head at that part of his commentary. God was never surprised in such cases and left dumbfounded; He is Perfect, and He makes no mistakes; He has always simply "worked out all things for the good of those who love Him and are awaiting His return". He knew what He was doing in His Merciful Actions then, and He still does, whether we understand it or not.

  • 2012-01-09T17:50:46

I agree! God is perfect and we as the clay cannot say why God? what we can is although I do not understand certain things! god is Sovereign ,Righteous and Holy! Amen.

  • 2012-01-09T16:45:27

Then you are saying that GOD changed His mind. That GOD was an opportunist, or had His morality dictated by circumstance. I cannot agree with that. What I know of GOD is that He is perfection and has no need to change. I don't understand a lot of the Old Testament laws and I won't until I reach Heaven. GOD's understanding I know to be perfect however - and I cannot wrap my 20th century mind around His ways. I have no problem telling non-believers who bring up incest and slavery and polygamy in the old Testament that I don't understand it at all. I walk by faith, not sight.